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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 04:54

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

How come Taiwan is LGBT friendly, yet Japan and South Korea are not?

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Why do so many men on the internet try to compete with women, or try to "humble" and bash them? There's so many videos across my tiktok and YouTube of men claiming how they're wanting to get back at women and put them in thier place.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why do gun lovers think their right to own a weapon supercedes everyone else's right to be safe and not be shot?

You'll usually find your answer there.